Consider
Statement $-1 :$$\left( {p \wedge \sim q} \right) \wedge \left( { \sim p \wedge q} \right)$ is a fallacy.
Statement $-2 :$$(p \rightarrow q) \leftrightarrow ( \sim q \rightarrow \sim p )$ is a tautology.
Statement $-1$ is false, Statement $-2$ is true
Statement $-1$ is true, Statement $-2$ is false
Statement $-1$ is true, Statement $-2$ is true; Statement $-2$ is a correct explanation for Statement $-1$
Statement $-1$ is true, Statement $-2$ is true; Statement $-2$ is not a correct explanation for Statement $-1$
$\left( { \sim \left( {p \vee q} \right)} \right) \vee \left( { \sim p \wedge q} \right)$ is logically equivalent to
Statement$-I :$ $\sim (p\leftrightarrow q)$ is equivalent to $(p\wedge \sim q)\vee \sim (p\vee \sim q) .$
Statement$-II :$ $p\rightarrow (p\rightarrow q)$ is a tautology.
The contrapositive of $(p \vee q) \Rightarrow r$ is
If the Boolean expression $( p \Rightarrow q ) \Leftrightarrow( q *(\sim p ))$ is a tautology, then the Boolean expression $p *(\sim q )$ is equivalent to
The converse of the statement $((\sim p) \wedge q) \Rightarrow r$ is